[2026] New N10-009 exam Free Sample Questions to Practice
Cover Real N10-009 Exam Questions Make Sure You 100% Pass
CompTIA N10-009 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 288
A company implements a new network utilizing only IPv6 addressing and needs to connect to the internet.
Which of the following must be enabled in order for the internal network to contact servers on the internet?
- A. GRE
- B. NAT64
- C. Static routing
- D. MPLS
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is NAT64, which is required when an IPv6-only internal network needs to communicate with IPv4-based servers on the internet. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, NAT64 is a translation technology that enables interoperability between IPv6 clients and IPv4 resources during the ongoing transition from IPv4 to IPv6.
Although IPv6 is widely deployed, a significant portion of internet services still operate exclusively on IPv4.
An IPv6-only host cannot natively communicate with an IPv4 server because the protocols use different addressing formats. NAT64 solves this problem by translating IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets and translating the responses back into IPv6, allowing seamless communication without requiring dual-stack configuration on internal hosts.
The other options do not address this requirement. MPLS is a WAN forwarding technology used by service providers and does not provide protocol translation. GRE is a tunneling protocol used to encapsulate traffic and does not enable IPv6-to-IPv4 communication. Static routing determines packet paths but does not resolve protocol incompatibility between IPv4 and IPv6.
The Network+ N10-009 exam places strong emphasis on IPv6 transition mechanisms, including NAT64, DNS64, and dual stack. In this scenario, NAT64 is the essential component that enables IPv6-only networks to access legacy IPv4 internet services.
NEW QUESTION # 289
Users report performance issues on the network. A network administrator notices broadcast storms occurring.
Which of the following protocols should the administrator configure to mitigate this issue?
- A. Spanning Tree
- B. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
- C. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
- D. Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
- E. Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is Spanning Tree because broadcast storms are typically caused by Layer 2 switching loops in Ethernet networks. According to the CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under switching concepts, the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is specifically designed to prevent loops in networks that have redundant switch connections.
In a Layer 2 environment, switches forward broadcast frames out all ports except the one on which they were received. If redundant paths exist without STP, frames can circulate indefinitely, creating a broadcast storm.
This results in excessive traffic, high CPU utilization on switches, MAC address table instability, and significant network performance degradation.
STP prevents this by logically blocking redundant paths while maintaining them as backups. If the active path fails, STP recalculates and activates a previously blocked path, preserving redundancy without loops.
The other options-EIGRP and BGP (routing protocols) and CDP and LLDP (device discovery protocols)- do not prevent Layer 2 loops.
Therefore, configuring Spanning Tree Protocol is the appropriate solution to mitigate broadcast storms.
NEW QUESTION # 290
A network administrator is configuring a network for a new site that will have 150 users. Within the next year, the site is expected to grow by ten users. Each user will have two IP addresses, one for a computer and one for a phone connected to the network. Which of the following classful IPv4 address ranges will be best- suited for the network?
- A. Class D
- B. Class C
- C. Class B
- D. Class A
Answer: B
Explanation:
IPv4 addresses are divided into classes:
Class A: Supports 16,777,214 hosts (large enterprises).
Class B: Supports 65,534 hosts (medium to large networks).
Class C: Supports 254 hosts (small to medium networks).
Class D: Used for multicast, not for assigning IPs to hosts.
Step-by-step Calculation:
The network will have 150 users initially, with a projected growth of 10 users, totaling 160 users.
Each user has two devices, so 160 × 2 = 320 IP addresses needed.
A Class C subnet has 254 usable IPs by default, which is not sufficient.
A Class B subnet can support thousands of hosts, making it the most appropriate option.
Incorrect Options:
A:Class D: Reserved for multicast, not for host assignments.
C:Class A: Overkill for a network of this size.
D:Class C: Cannot support 320 hosts without subnetting, making Class B the best choice.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Study Guide - Chapter on IP Addressing and Subnetting
NEW QUESTION # 291
Which of the following concepts describes the idea of housing different customers in the same public cloud data center?
- A. Scalability
- B. Multitenancy
- C. Elasticity
- D. Hybrid cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to N10-009):
Multitenancy is a cloud concept where multiple customers share the same physical resources (servers, storage, and networks) but remain logically separated for security and privacy.
A). Elasticity is auto-scaling resources.
B). Hybrid cloud combines private and public resources.
C). Scalability is the ability to grow resources but doesn't imply multiple customers.
References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Networking Concepts - Cloud computing models, multitenancy in public cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 292
A network architect is implementing an off-premises computing facility and needs to ensure that operations will not be impacted by major outages. Which of the following should the architect consider?
- A. Hot site
- B. DCI
- C. Direct Connect
- D. Active-passive approach
Answer: A
Explanation:
Ahot siteis a fully operational backup facility with hardware, network, and data synchronization already in place. It allows forimmediate failoverin the event of a disaster, minimizing downtime.
* B. DCI (Data Center Interconnect)connects data centers but doesn't guarantee availability unless built redundantly.
* C. Direct Connectrefers to a private link to cloud providers, not disaster recovery.
* D. Active-passivecan help with failover but may involve delay unless combined with hot site principles.
#Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.4 - Summarize business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.
NEW QUESTION # 293
Which of the following can be implemented to add an additional layer of security between a corporate network and network management interfaces?
- A. Console server
- B. API interface
- C. Jump box
- D. In-band management
Answer: C
Explanation:
A jump box is a hardened, isolated system that provides secure access to critical infrastructure devices like routers and firewalls.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide - Domain 4.3: Explain network security techniques.
NEW QUESTION # 294
A systems administrator is investigating why users cannot reach a Linux web server with a browser but can ping the server IP. The server is online, the web server process is running, and the link to the switch is up. Which of the following commands should the administrator run on the server first?
- A. netstat
- B. tcpdump
- C. arp
- D. traceroute
Answer: A
Explanation:
The netstat command provides information about network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, masquerade connections, and multicast memberships. Running netstat on the server can help the administrator verify that the web server process is listening on the expected port (e.g., port 80 for HTTP or port 443 for HTTPS) and that there are no issues with network connections. This is a crucial first step in diagnosing why the web server is not accessible via a browser.
NEW QUESTION # 295
A network administrator determines that some switch ports have more errors present than expected. The administrator traces the cabling associated with these ports. Which of the following would most likely be causing the errors?
- A. nmap
- B. arp
- C. ipconfig
- D. tracert
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 296
Which of the following is a cost-effective advantage of a split-tunnel VPN?
- A. Monitoring detects insecure machines on the company's network.
- B. More bandwidth is required on the company's internet connection.
- C. Web traffic is filtered through a web filter.
- D. Cloud-based traffic flows outside of the company's network.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A split-tunnel VPN allows certain traffic (e.g., cloud-based services) to bypass the VPN and go directly to the Internet. This reduces the amount of traffic that needs to traverse the company's VPN and Internet connection, conserving bandwidth and reducing costs. It also means that not all traffic is subject to the same level of inspection or filtering, which can improve performance for cloud-based services.
NEW QUESTION # 297
Which of the following types of routes takes precedence when building a routing table for a given subnet?
- A. BGP
- B. Default
- C. OSPF
- D. Static
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is Static because static routes have a lower administrative distance (AD) than most dynamic routing protocols, giving them higher priority when a router selects routes for the same destination network. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) routing objectives, administrative distance is used to determine the trustworthiness of a route source when multiple routing protocols provide a path to the same subnet. The lower the administrative distance, the more preferred the route.
By default, a static route has an administrative distance of 1, which is lower than OSPF (110) and BGP (20 for eBGP, 200 for iBGP). Because of this, when identical routes to a subnet exist from both static and dynamic sources, the router installs the static route in the routing table.
A default route (0.0.0.0/0) is only used when no more specific route exists and does not take precedence over specific static or dynamic routes.
Therefore, when building the routing table for a given subnet and comparing route sources, static routes take precedence due to their lower administrative distance.
NEW QUESTION # 298
A virtual machine has the following configuration:
*IPv4 address: 169.254.10.10
*Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
The virtual machine can reach colocated systems but cannot reach external addresses on the Internet. Which of the following Is most likely the root cause?
- A. TheIP address is an RFC1918 private address.
- B. TheDNS server is unreachable.
- C. Thesubnet mask is incorrect.
- D. TheDHCP server is offline.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Understanding the 169.254.x.x Address:
* An IPv4 address in the range of 169.254.x.x is an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address, assigned when a DHCP server is unavailable.
* DHCP Server Offline:
* APIPA Assignment: When a device cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, it assigns itself an APIPA address to enable local network communication. This allows communication with other devices on the same local subnet but not with external networks.
* Resolution: Ensure the DHCP server is operational. Check for connectivity issues between the virtual machine and the DHCP server, and verify the DHCP server settings.
* Comparison with Other Options:
* The subnet mask is incorrect: The subnet mask 255.255.0.0 is appropriate for the 169.254.x.x range and does not prevent external access by itself.
* The IP address is an RFC1918 private address: RFC1918 addresses are private IP ranges (10.x.x.
x, 172.16.x.x-172.31.x.x, 192.168.x.x) but 169.254.x.x is not one of them.
* The DNS server is unreachable: While this could affect name resolution, it would not prevent the assignment of a non-APIPA address or local network communication.
* Troubleshooting Steps:
* Verify the DHCP server's status and connectivity.
* Restart the DHCP service if necessary.
* Renew the IP lease on the virtual machine using commands such as ipconfig /renew (Windows) or dhclient (Linux).
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials on IP addressing and DHCP troubleshooting.
NEW QUESTION # 299
A network engineer needs to order cabling to connect two buildings within the same city. Which of the following media types should the network engineer use?
- A. Twinaxial
- B. Cat 5
- C. Coaxial
- D. Single-mode fiber
Answer: D
Explanation:
Single-mode fiberis best suited forlong-distance communication, often exceeding 10 km (6.2 miles). It's immune to EMI and offers high bandwidth - making it the ideal choice forconnecting buildings across a city.
* Coaxial(A) andTwinaxial(B) are used for shorter distances and specific use cases (e.g., storage or legacy systems).
* Cat 5(D) is limited to 100 meters and is not suitable for city-level interconnects.
#For long-distance, high-speed, and reliable communication between buildings,Single-mode fiberis the professional choice.
NEW QUESTION # 300
A network technician needs to install patch cords from the UTP patch panel to the access switch for a newly occupied set of offices. The patch panel is not labeled for easy jack identification. Which of the following tools provides the easiest way to identify the appropriate patch panel port?
- A. Visual fault locator
- B. Cable tester
- C. Laptop
- D. Toner
Answer: D
Explanation:
A toner probe, often referred to as a toner and probe kit, is the easiest and most effective tool for identifying individual cables in a bundle, especially in situations where the patch panel is not labeled. The toner sends an audible tone through the cable, and the probe detects the tone at the other end, allowing the technician to quickly identify the correct cable.
* Functionality: The toner generates a tone that travels along the cable. When the probe is placed near the correct cable, it detects the tone and emits a sound.
* Ease of Use: Toner probes are straightforward to use, even in environments with many cables, making
* them ideal for identifying cables in unlabeled patch panels.
* Efficiency: This method is much faster and more reliable than manual tracing, especially in complex setups.
Network References:
* CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Details tools used for cable identification and troubleshooting.
* Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on using toner probes and other cable testing tools.
* Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the use of different tools for network cable identification and management.
NEW QUESTION # 301
A network engineer needs to add a boundary network to isolate and separate the internal network from the public-facing internet. Which of the following security defense solutions would best accomplish this task?
- A. Trusted zones
- B. Screened subnet
- C. URL filtering
- D. ACLs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ascreened subnet, also known as aDMZ (Demilitarized Zone), is aboundary networkthat separates an organization's internal network from external-facing systems. It is used to host public services like web or email servers while protecting internal systems from exposure.
Reference:Section 4.3 - Network Security Features, Defense Techniques, and Solutions - "Screened Subnet (DMZ)"
NEW QUESTION # 302
Which of the following troubleshooting steps provides a change advisory board with the information needed to make a decision?
- A. Establish a plan of action
- B. Identify the problem
- C. Test the theory to determine cause
- D. Develop a theory of probable cause
Answer: A
Explanation:
When dealing with troubleshooting and change management, the plan of action outlines the steps, risks, and mitigation strategies. A change advisory board (CAB) uses this documented plan to decide whether to approve the change.
A). Identify the problem is the first step in troubleshooting, not decision-making for CAB.
B). Develop a theory is diagnostic work, not planning.
C). Test the theory confirms causes but doesn't provide actionable planning information.
References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
Domain: Network Operations - Change management, troubleshooting methodology, CAB processes.
NEW QUESTION # 303
Which of the following allows a network administrator to analyze attacks coming from the internet without affecting latency?
- A. Firewall
- B. Load balancer
- C. IDS
- D. IPS
Answer: C
Explanation:
An IDS (Intrusion Detection System) is deployed out-of-band, meaning it passively monitors network traffic using a SPAN/mirror port or network tap. It detects and analyzes suspicious traffic without introducing latency since it does not sit in-line.
A . IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) is in-line and can block traffic but may add latency.
C . Load balancer distributes traffic across servers for performance and redundancy, not for threat detection.
D . Firewall filters traffic at the perimeter or internally; it can affect latency but does not provide the same in-depth attack analysis.
Reference (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
NEW QUESTION # 304
A network administrator has been tasked with configuring a network for a new corporate office. The office consists of two buildings, separated by 50 feet with no physical connectivity. The configuration must meet the following requirements:
. Devices in both buildings should be
able to access the Internet.
. Security insists that all Internet traffic
be inspected before entering the
network.
. Desktops should not see traffic
destined for other devices.
INSTRUCTIONS
Select the appropriate network device for each location. If applicable, click on the magnifying glass next to any device which may require configuration updates and make any necessary changes.
Not all devices will be used, but all locations should be filled.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the step by step complete solution below.
Explanation:
* Devices in both buildings should be able to access the Internet.
* Security insists that all Internet traffic be inspected before entering the network.
* Desktops should not see traffic destined for other devices.
Here is the corrected layout with explanation:
* Building A:
* Switch: Correctly placed to connect all desktops.
* Firewall: Correctly placed to inspect all incoming and outgoing traffic.
* Building B:
* Switch: Not needed. Instead, place a Wireless Access Point (WAP) to provide wireless connectivity for laptops and mobile devices.
* Between Buildings:
* Wireless Range Extender: Correctly placed to provide connectivity between the buildings wirelessly.
* Connection to the Internet:
* Router: Correctly placed to connect to the Internet and route traffic between the buildings and the Internet.
* Firewall: The firewall should be placed between the router and the internal network to inspect all traffic before it enters the network.
Corrected Setup:
* Top-left (Building A): Switch
* Bottom-left (Building A): Firewall (inspect traffic before it enters the network)
* Top-middle (Internet connection): Router
* Bottom-middle (between buildings): Wireless Range Extender
* Top-right (Building B): Wireless Access Point (WAP)
In this corrected setup, the WAP in Building B will connect wirelessly to the Wireless Range Extender, which is connected to the Router. The Router is connected to the Firewall to ensure all traffic is inspected before it enters the network.
Configuration for Wireless Range Extender:
* SSID: CORP
* Security Settings: WPA2 or WPA2 - Enterprise
* Key or Passphrase: [Enter a strong passphrase]
* Mode: [Set based on your network plan]
* Channel: [Set based on your network plan]
* Speed: Auto
* Duplex: Auto
With these settings, both buildings will have secure access to the Internet, and all traffic will be inspected by the firewall before entering the network. Desktops and other devices will not see traffic intended for others, maintaining the required security and privacy.
To configure the wireless range extender for security, follow these steps:
* SSID (Service Set Identifier):
* Ensure the SSID is set to "CORP" as shown in the exhibit.
* Security Settings:
* WPA2 or WPA2 - Enterprise: Choose one of these options for stronger security.
WPA2-Enterprise provides more robust security with centralized authentication, which is ideal for a corporate environment.
* Key or Passphrase:
* If you select WPA2, enter a strong passphrase in the "Key or Passphrase" field.
* If you select WPA2 - Enterprise, you will need to configure additional settings for authentication servers, such as RADIUS, which is not shown in the exhibit.
* Wireless Mode and Channel:
* Set the appropriate mode and channel based on your network design and the environment to avoid interference. These settings are not specified in the exhibit, so set them according to your network plan.
* Wired Speed and Duplex:
* Set the speed to "Auto" unless you have specific requirements for 100 or 1000 Mbps.
* Set the duplex to "Auto" unless you need to specify half or full duplex based on your network equipment.
* Save Configuration:
* After making the necessary changes, click the "Save" button to apply the settings.
Here is how the configuration should look after adjustments:
* SSID: CORP
* Security Settings: WPA2 or WPA2 - Enterprise
* Key or Passphrase: [Enter a strong passphrase]
* Mode: [Set based on your network plan]
* Channel: [Set based on your network plan]
* Speed: Auto
* Duplex: Auto
Once these settings are configured, your wireless range extender will provide secure connectivity for devices in both buildings.
Firewall setting to to ensure complete compliance with the requirements and best security practices, consider the following adjustments and additions:
* DNS Rule: This rule allows DNS traffic from the internal network to any destination, which is fine.
* HTTPS Outbound: This rule allows HTTPS traffic from the internal network (assuming
192.169.0.1/24 is a typo and should be 192.168.0.1/24) to any destination, which is also good for secure web browsing.
* Management: This rule allows SSH access to the firewall for management purposes, which is necessary for administrative tasks.
* HTTPS Inbound: This rule denies inbound HTTPS traffic to the internal network, which is good unless you have a web server that needs to be accessible from the internet.
* HTTP Inbound: This rule denies inbound HTTP traffic to the internal network, which is correct for security purposes.
Suggested Additional Settings:
* Permit General Outbound Traffic: Allow general outbound traffic for web access, email, etc.
* Block All Other Traffic: Ensure that all other traffic is blocked to prevent unauthorized access.
Firewall Configuration Adjustments:
* Correct the Network Typo:
* Ensure that the subnet 192.169.0.1/24 is corrected to 192.168.0.1/24.
* Permit General Outbound Traffic:
* Rule Name: General Outbound
* Source: 192.168.0.1/24
* Destination: ANY
* Service: ANY
* Action: PERMIT
* Deny All Other Traffic:
* Rule Name: Block All
* Source: ANY
* Destination: ANY
* Service: ANY
* Action: DENY
Here is how your updated firewall settings should look:
Rule Name
Source
Destination
Service
Action
DNS Rule
192.168.0.1/24
ANY
DNS
PERMIT
HTTPS Outbound
192.168.0.1/24
ANY
HTTPS
PERMIT
Management
ANY
192.168.0.1/24
SSH
PERMIT
HTTPS Inbound
ANY
192.168.0.1/24
HTTPS
DENY
HTTP Inbound
ANY
192.168.0.1/24
HTTP
DENY
General Outbound
192.168.0.1/24
ANY
ANY
PERMIT
Block All
ANY
ANY
ANY
DENY
These settings ensure that:
* Internal devices can access DNS and HTTPS services externally.
* Management access via SSH is permitted.
* Inbound HTTP and HTTPS traffic is denied unless otherwise specified.
* General outbound traffic is allowed.
* All other traffic is blocked by default, ensuring a secure environment.
Make sure to save the settings after making these adjustments.
NEW QUESTION # 305
Which of the following would be violated if an employee accidentally deleted a customer's data?
- A. Vulnerability
- B. Integrity
- C. Availability
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Availability refers to ensuring that data is accessible when needed. If a customer's data is accidentally deleted, it impacts availability, as the data can no longer be accessed.
NEW QUESTION # 306
A user's VoIP phone and workstation are connected through an inline cable. The user reports that the VoIP phone intermittently reboots, but the workstation is not having any network-related issues Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. The signal is degraded
- B. Port security is violated.
- C. The Ethernet cable is not working
- D. The PoE power budget is exceeded.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Power over Ethernet (PoE) delivers power to devices such as VoIP phones over the same cables used for data. If the total power requirement of connected devices exceeds the PoE power budget of the switch or injector, some devices may not receive adequate power and could intermittently reboot. This issue would not affect the workstation, which is likely receiving power separately. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
NEW QUESTION # 307
Which of the following is most commonly associated with many systems sharing one IP address in the public IP-addressing space?
- A. NAT64
- B. NAT
- C. PAT
- D. VIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Port Address Translation (PAT) allows multiple internal devices to share a single public IP address by assigning each device a unique port number. This is the most common method used in environments where many systems need internet access but there are limited public IP addresses.
NEW QUESTION # 308
A technician is troubleshooting a user's laptop that is unable to connect to a corporate server.
The technician thinks the issue pertains to routing. Which of the following commands should the technician use to identify the issue?
- A. tcpdump
- B. dig
- C. arp
- D. tracert
Answer: D
Explanation:
The tracert (Traceroute) command is used to determine the path packets take from the source to the destination. It helps in identifying routing issues by showing each hop the packets pass through, along with the time taken for each hop. This command can pinpoint where the connection is failing or experiencing delays, making it an essential tool for troubleshooting routing issues.
NEW QUESTION # 309
You have been tasked with implementing an ACL on the router that will:
1. Permit the most commonly used secure remote access technologies from the management network to all other local network segments
2. Ensure the user subnet cannot use the most commonly used remote access technologies in the Linux and Windows Server segments.
3. Prohibit any traffic that has not been specifically allowed.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the drop-downs to complete the ACL
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer and solution below.
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 310
SIMULATION
Users are unable to access files on their department share located on file server 2.
The network administrator has been tasked with validating routing between networks hosting workstation A and file server 2.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each router to review output, identify any issues, and configure the appropriate solution.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the step by step complete solution below
Explanation:
To validate routing between networks hosting Workstation A and File Server 2, follow these steps:
Step-by-Step Solution
Review Routing Tables:
Check the routing tables of Router A, Router B, and Router C to identify any missing routes.
Identify Missing Routes:
Ensure that each router has routes to the networks on which Workstation A and File Server 2 are located.
Add Static Routes:
If a route is missing, add a static route to the relevant destination network via the correct interface.
Detailed Analysis and Configuration
Router A:
Routing Table:
Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks
C 10.0.4.0/22 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
C 10.0.6.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
L 10.0.6.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 172.16.27.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3
L 172.16.27.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3
Router B:
Routing Table:
Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks
C 10.0.0.0/22 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
L 10.0.0.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 172.16.27.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
L 172.16.27.5/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
Router C:
Routing Table:
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks
S 10.0.0.0/22 [1/0] via GigabitEthernet1
S 10.0.4.0/22 [1/0] via GigabitEthernet2
172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C 172.16.27.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
L 172.16.27.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
C 172.16.27.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
L 172.16.27.6/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
Configuration Steps:
Router A:
Install Static Route to 10.0.0.0/22 via 172.16.27.1 (assuming Router C's IP is 172.16.27.1):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.0.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet3
Router B:
Install Static Route to 10.0.4.0/22 via 172.16.27.5 (assuming Router C's IP is 172.16.27.5):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.4.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet1
Router C:
Install Static Route to 10.0.6.0/24 via 172.16.27.2 (assuming Router A's IP is 172.16.27.2):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.6.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.255.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet2
Install Static Route to 10.0.0.0/22 via 172.16.27.1 (assuming Router B's IP is 172.16.27.1):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.0.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet1
Summary of Static Routes:
Router A:
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet3
Router B:
ip route 10.0.4.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet1
Router C:
ip route 10.0.6.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet2
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet1
These configurations ensure that each router knows the correct paths to reach Workstation A and File Server 2, resolving the connectivity issue.
NEW QUESTION # 311
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